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Science

A (Correct) Poincare Proof!? 324

aphyscher writes "About a year ago, there was an announcement that M.J. Dunwoody had proved the (in)famous Poincare conjecture. His paper turned out to have a slight problem, and so it remained unsolved... until perhaps now! Sergey Nikitin has posted a preprint of what may perhaps be an actual proof."
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A (Correct) Poincare Proof!?

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  • by CommieLib ( 468883 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:47AM (#4513710) Homepage
    Mmmm...hypothetical donut...

    • Hypothetical hyper-doughnut. It's a 4 (or more) dimensional object.

      I think. Maybe it is a 3-d doughnut. It's been ten years since I studied that stuff at college.

  • So? (Score:2, Interesting)

    by m0i ( 192134 )
    I'm not that much into maths, but what will this proof achieve?
    • Re:So? (Score:5, Funny)

      by jasonditz ( 597385 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:56AM (#4513790) Homepage
      Well, if you give the proof at a big university chances are you'll totally score with some PhD Math chick.

      • Re:So? (Score:5, Funny)

        by GuyMannDude ( 574364 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:14PM (#4513962) Journal

        Well, if you give the proof at a big university chances are you'll totally score with some PhD Math chick.

        Before you guys all start dissing math chicks, remember that "mathematicans do it smoothly and continuously". I wanted to put that on a bumper sticker and slap it on my car but I went with "My girlfriend can't wrestle but you should see her box" instead.

        GMD

    • Re:So? (Score:4, Informative)

      by Telastyn ( 206146 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:03PM (#4513863)
      There's a $1,000,000 award for one thing...
    • Re:So? (Score:5, Insightful)

      by Listen Up ( 107011 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:05PM (#4513882)

      Pure science is pure science. All great discoveries that have ever existed have been because of small, previously unrelated pure mathematical works (or other pure true sciences), which when done on their own seem to have no superficial meaning to someone such as an engineer or common layman, but pure mathematics is akin to pieces of a grand puzzle. Each piece is intrinsically linked to the whole picture. Looking at each piece will not reveal the puzzle, although solving each piece on its own will. This proof need not prove anything to an engineer, a computer scientist, a ballerina, or the mailman, but to a mathematician and others who understand its significance (among others) this proof advances the pure science of mathematics...and by that the world will eventually be forever changed.
      • Re:So? (Score:3, Insightful)

        by doi ( 584455 )
        All great discoveries that have ever existed have been because of small, previously unrelated pure mathematical works

        Unless I'm mistaken, Archimedes invented the screw pump while taking a bath, and wasn't thinking about the intricacies of helical structures before then. Certainly the mathematics of the time weren't sufficient to fully describe that structure either...it was a purely practical device for a purely practical application, and definitely WAS one of the great discoveries of all time.

        Not to mention the discovery of the word "Eureka!" :-)

        • Re:So? (Score:3, Informative)

          by richie2000 ( 159732 )
          Archimedes invented the screw pump while taking a bath

          (Note to reader: I'll ignore the obvious troll potential in that statement and go for the semi-serious approach that tapers out at the end) IIRC, he noticed the displacement of a fluid when a body is submerged in it. This lead to displacement of a goldsmith's head since it provided him with a method to test the density (and hence deduce the proportions of the different metals) of a newly manufactured golden crown for the King (whose name I have conveniently forgotten, let's hope no one knows who George Bush was two thousand years from now, but everyone has heard of Stephen Hawking).

          Little known conjecture: If Alexander Graham Bell had been alive at the time, Archie would have forgotten the whole thing when he had to climb out of the bath to answer the phone. Let's decapitate telemarketers!

        • Archimedes invented the screw pump while taking a bath

          Actually, it's a bit more logical than that. He discovered the principal of displacement while taking a bath.

          I'm not exactly sure how one would think of "screw pumps" while in the bath. Come to think of it, I'm pretty sure I don't want to know.

    • This problem is priced [claymath.org] at $1 million if solved.
    • This has a lot of implications for anything in 4d space.
      Basicly before the proof you couldn't be sure what limits existed, now an extra limit has been placed on 4d environments.

      The proof may also point the way to other proofs

  • by gerf ( 532474 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:48AM (#4513717) Journal
    But alas, the space alloted in a regular comments window is insufficient to explain further...
    • I got to:
      and a ? @K + K has less generators
      than M: Hence, by the assumption of mathematical induction
      a ? @K + K @(1 2 3 4 5) and consequently
      M @(1 2 3 4 5):
      The proof is completed. Q.E.D.

      before I had a seziure.

      Q.E.D. my ass! It shoulda been "Whoo hoooo!".

  • Ok (Score:5, Funny)

    by kenp2002 ( 545495 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:51AM (#4513745) Homepage Journal
    Ok so rad the pre-writeup on this and I can say this: WAY OVER MY HEAD! I understood about
    1.05E-60% of that. Holy cow. There is proof that higher education still turns out some bright people. I wish I knew what the hell all that was about, it "looks" cool. You could use that as a prop in a movie for some secret formula or something.
    • Re:Ok (Score:5, Funny)

      by b0r0din ( 304712 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:01PM (#4513841)
      It's very simple, as the problem asks.

      "Consider a compact 3-dimensional manifold V without boundary. Is it possible that the fundamental group of V could be trivial, even though V is not homeomorphic to the 3-dimensional sphere?"

      What he's saying is, the...er...well, he means that the, uh...


      I fucking HATE french people.

      • Re:Ok (Score:5, Informative)

        by cperciva ( 102828 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:47PM (#4514299) Homepage
        What he's saying is, the...er...well, he means that the, uh...

        Look at it this way:
        Suppose the universe doesn't have any "edges" -- you can keep on going forever in a straight line without "falling off the edge of the world". Suppose further than there aren't any "wormholes" -- that given two paths between a pair of points, you can continuously deform one into the other. Finally, suppose that the universe is finite in volume.

        Now, the first and third conditions above imply that the universe "folds in on itself". Add in the "no wormholes" condition, and Poincare's conjecture/theorem, and you find that there is only one possible way that it can fold in on itself -- as a hypersphere.

        At least, that's the best explanation I can provide without any formal background in topology or astrophysics.
        • Doesn't the "without boundry" mean that's it's an "open section"?

          Like, In 2d, x^2+y^2=1 is closed cause it has the border, meaning, a circle around a dot on the border will always be on the 2 sides of the border, however small, while x^2+y^21 is open because every cirlce around any specific dot inside it can be made small enough to be wholely in the area.

          That's studied in basic Calcalus courses...
        • >Suppose the universe doesn't have any "edges"...
          >...Finally, suppose that the universe is finite in volume.

          How can it be both?

          • A sphere has no edges but has a finite area. Just bump it up a dimension.
          • riemann (Score:4, Informative)

            by dollargonzo ( 519030 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @06:03PM (#4517662) Homepage
            this is the property of a non-euclidean riemann geometry. suppose that you had a front yard, and you wanted to put a fence around it, to show it was yours. the yard is 2D, so the bigger the yard, the bigger the fence. however, since the flat surface of the earth curves and folds on itself as a sphere, you can own a yard the size of the earth and NOT need a fence, since there are no edges. the same thing applies here.

      • by Nyarly ( 104096 ) <nyarly@redfivellc. c o m> on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @03:50PM (#4516443) Homepage Journal
        What he's saying is, the...er...well, he means that the, uh...

        Piece by piece:

        • Consider a compact 3-dimensional manifold V without boundary.
          • Basically, V is a set of points with a whole bunch of properties. Among them are the fact that the points are "smooth," as defined by a funky neighborhoods deal, but it's roughly analogous to the definition of a continuous function. (I believe that the points that satisfy a continuous function would be a topological space - the first part of being a compact manifold).
          • Compactness is harder to grasp. Essentially you couldn't find a infinite set of open sets whose union is the set of points in the manifest, from which a finite number of sets could be taken whose union would also be the original set. Almost kinda like saying that there aren't discontinuities in the manifold - there aren't gaps.
          • Without boundary means that it doesn't include it's own boardary - like the open ball, where it's every point inside a certain radius - the surface is the sphere at that radius.
          • 3-dimensional means that you could refer to any point in the manifold with as few as three values. Unless the manifold set is a space, is exists in 4 dimensions. Think about a sphere - you can refer to any point on a sphere with 2 coordinates, like latitude and longitude, but it exists in 3 dimensions.
        • Is it possible that the fundamental group of V could be trivial
          By which he means: there is one equivalence set of loops through the manifold. Every possible loop (A path that returns to its beginning point. Duh.) in the manifold belongs to one set of loops that are pretty much the same - you could push any one of them around and get any other one. A sphere has this quality - any loop you draw on the surface of a 2-sphere (the one that exists in three dimensions), but a torus doesn't - there are the loops that are equivalent to the loop around the outside of the torus, and the ones that run through the hole.
        • even though V is not homeomorphic to the 3-dimensional sphere?" Trans: Even though you can't finagle necessarily finagle it into a 3-sphere, even if I let you do it in higher dimensions.

        What he's asking is, is it possible there could be an object in 4-dimensions, that has some kind of tangle in it such that you can't make it into a hypersphere, but isn't so mangled that there are fundamentally different ways to "draw lines" on it. The suggestion is fairly reasonable, I think.

        For instance, any loop drawn on a plane is homeomorphic to a circle. You're options in connected finite 1-d manifolds amount to line segments, or cirles. But when you upgrade to 2-d, suddenly you've got holes. You can't have holes in 1-d and still be connected, but in 2-d you get donuts and dresses and honeycombs and whatnot. But the thing about a hole is that it means that your fundamental group have more than one set in it, and without a hole, you wind up being a sphere.

        So why shouldn't there be another characteristic of 3-d objects, one which allows for more than one kind of simply connected, non-contractable manifold?

    • Re:Ok (Score:3, Funny)

      Ok, I got to page two and hadda stop. He started in with the big sigma and I lost it.

      Hehe... gotta go back and get my advanced trigonometry and calculus credits.
  • by IvyMike ( 178408 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:53AM (#4513768)

    ...the most intelligent thing I can think of is: "Mmmmm...donuts."

  • by ekrout ( 139379 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:54AM (#4513784) Journal
    A.) There's now a correct proof of the Poincare problem!
    B.) Jon Katz no longer posts to Slashdot!
    C.) Chris D. starts his own gaming company; plans to fill-in Part 2 of the traditional Steps 1, 2, & 3 to Profit!
    D.) Microsoft is now the largest paid advertiser on Slashdot.org, the be-all-end-all for all Open-Source/Free-Software news

    My brain needs a reboot.
    • Did Katz really stop posting to slashdot? Permanently? Did he say why? I haven't seen him for awhile, but I'm not sure if this is because he's on sabbatical or what have you. Please do tell! I rather detest his drivel.
  • by Anonymous Cowtard ( 573891 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:56AM (#4513793)
    Sorry, you forgot to carry a 2 at the very beginning. Try again.
  • Poincaré Conjecture (Score:5, Informative)

    by taphu ( 549739 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @11:59AM (#4513820) Homepage
    For super-geeks, here is is a more thorough discussion of the Poincaré Conjecture.

    http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PoincareConjecture.ht ml [wolfram.com]
  • by SniffleBear ( 604984 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:02PM (#4513846)
    This is just mathematical proof that you can wrap a rubberband around an apple. I think the rest of us would be satisfied by a videotape instead.
    • nonono ! It's *four* dimensional d00d !

      That's way cooler : you wrap a rubberband around an apple faster than a jury can see it. The fastest math geek gets the $1M and the chicks.

      For the tech-savvy : they're using tiBooks to wrap the band around. Imacs turned out to be a pain when the band reaches the power chord.
    • This is just mathematical proof that you can wrap a rubberband around an apple. I think the rest of us would be satisfied by a videotape instead.

      It's more like a proof that the rubber band will pop off the apple if you nudge it a bit. Oh, yeah, and the apple has to be 4-dimensional (and no, you can't count time as one of them). Good luck making that video....

  • Poincare Conjecture (Score:5, Informative)

    by jkauzlar ( 596349 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:13PM (#4513951) Homepage
    Simpy put, the poincare conjecture implies that every compact n-manifold is homotopy-equivalent to the n-sphere iff it is homeomorphic to the n-sphere. (From Wolfram's MathWorld) Actually I don't know what that means, but having read and studied a bit about math, I can offer some explanation on the importance of such a proof. When a proof attempts to show that two algebraic structures are equal, as does this conjecture, it allows mathematicians the freedom to look at a problem in two ways instead of one. At last, a compact n-manifold problem can be safely regarded as an n-sphere problem and all the rules regarding n-spheres can be applied to certian n-manifolds. On another topic, these long-standing, but near-universally-believed-to-be-true conjectures are often assumed to be true in order to prove other theorems. i.e. a ground-breaking new primality testing algorithm ASSUMES the truth of the unproven Reimann Hypothesis. So, future encryption keys may rely on unstable hypotheses for their unbreakability.
    • Simpy put, the poincare conjecture implies that every compact n-manifold is homotopy-equivalent to the n-sphere iff it is homeomorphic to the n-sphere

      Oh, I didn't realise it was that simple.

      • by Viking Coder ( 102287 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @01:38PM (#4514833)
        Frink: Well, it should be obvious to even the most dim-witted individual who holds an advanced degree in hyperbolic topology, n'gee, that Homer Simpson has stumbled into...[the lights go off] the third dimension.

        Lisa: [turning the lights back on] Sorry.

        Frink: [drawing on a blackboard] Here is an ordinary square --

        Wiggum: Whoa, whoa -- slow down, egghead!

        Frink: -- but suppose we extend the square beyond the two dimensions of our universe - along the hypothetical Z axis, there.

        Everyone: [gasps]

        Frink: This forms a three-dimensional object known as a "cube", or a "Frinkahedron" in honor of its discoverer, n'hey, n'hey.
  • by dvdeug ( 5033 ) <dvdeug@emailMENCKEN.ro minus author> on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:20PM (#4514001)
    I don't know which is worse; a problem like the Poincare problem, which has been definitively solved for 1-manifolds, 2-manifolds, and n-manifolds where n > 3, leaving only one little hole; or something like Femat's Last Theorem, which was solved for everything up to n equals a million billion and most numbers beyond that, before someone finally come up with a definitive proof.
    • In 2d, an area A is "simply connected" means that for every closed _line_ which is wholely inside the area, the area inside the line is wholely inside A and the line is it's border.

      In 3d, a volume A is "simply connected" means that for every closed line which is wholely inside the volume, there exists a surface that is wholely inside A.
  • FINALLY!! (Score:5, Funny)

    by paradoxmember ( 609285 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:21PM (#4514011)
    wow.. finally.. i can sleep at night!!
  • My proof (Score:3, Funny)

    by PygmyTrojan ( 605138 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:23PM (#4514026)
    Every simply connected closed 3-manifold is homeomorphic to the 3-sphere

    Well, duh.

  • Beam me up (Score:2, Funny)

    by tiredwired ( 525324 )
    Finally I can complete the warp engine. We shall fly through space like a rubber band flung from the surface of a sphere. Evil donuts beware. Why do Brits say maths instead of just math?
    • Because they think there's more than one, duh. Little do they know that the One True Math will damn them to the firey pit of Sociology for their blasphemy!
    • Re:Beam me up (Score:2, Informative)

      by u38cg ( 607297 )
      We used to treat 'mathematics' as a plural, like you still sometimes hear data treated ("the data were tested..."). When lazy schoolboys and Cambridge ugrads abbreviated it to maths, they kept their plural, as changing it to a singular (at that time) would have felt odd. Now, we treat it as singular, but continue to call it maths. Obviously. One sheep, two sheeps, fish.
  • Poincare Conjecture (Score:5, Informative)

    by Listen Up ( 107011 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:29PM (#4514080)

    The Poincaré Conjecture is widely considered the most important unsolved problem in topology. It was first formulated by Henri Poincaré in 1904. In 2000 the Clay Mathematics Institute selected the Poincaré conjecture as one of seven Millennium Prize Problems and offered a $1,000,000 prize for its solution.

    The conjecture is that every simply connected compact 3-manifold without boundary is homeomorphic to a 3-sphere. (Loosely speaking, that every 3-dimensional object that has a set of sphere-like properties can be stretched or squeezed until it is a 3-sphere without breaking it).

    Analogues of the Poincaré Conjecture in dimensions other than 3 can also be formulated. The difficulty of low-dimensional topology is highlighted by the fact these analogues have now all been proven, while the original 3-dimensional version of Poincaré's conjecture remains unsolved. Its solution is central to the problem of classifying 3-manifolds.

    On April 7, 2002 there were reports that the Poincaré conjecture might have been solved by Martin Dunwoody; on April 12 Dunwoody acknowledged a gap in the proof and was attempting to fix it. In October of that year, Sergei Nikitin of Arizona State University announced that he had proved the result.
  • Phase 1: Prove Poincare Conjuncture

    Phase 2: Collect Clay Math Prize

    Phase 3: Profit

    Now *there's* a business model!

  • two dimensional sphere

    Exqueeze moi? That one made me do a double-take. Or maybe those two made me do a triple-take, I'm not sure... Maybe if you look at a coloured circle using red-green glasses?

    • A manifold is just an n-dimensional surface. The surface of a sphere is completly defined by two dimensions, theta and phi, latitude and longitude, etc.; hence, a 2D sphere.

      No one cares what goes on inside the sphere... no one can see it!
      • Ah, that explains it. But you're wrong - the worm cares about the innards of the apple. And Woz, of course. ;-)

        And, if you want to get picky, the surface representation in 3D does care, you need to define the curvature somehow and you can't do that in 2D - without that, it's just another plane. *ponders* Nah, I don't want to get picky. Let's leave it. :-)


  • How do we use this to take down the RIAA/MPAA?
  • by jolshefsky ( 560014 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @12:53PM (#4514370) Homepage
    Let's see if I've got this right. A manifold is just a way of describing some thingy in a some specific N-dimensional space. You would say that a Dixie cup is a manifold that is homeomorphic to a sphere because if the Dixie cup were maleable, you could stretch and push the outer surface of it to form a sphere.

    You could take a magical rubber band and stretch it around a sphere and then slide the rubber band along the surface. As you work your way around, you'd find that the length of the rubber band varied along the surface. The important thing is that you can slide the rubber band so its length is essentially zero--a.k.a. a single point.

    Poincare (Poincar&eacute; really but thanks a lot Slashdot for not letting me ...) speculated that if you had any simply connected closed 3-manifold is homeomorphic to the 3-sphere (which I'm just parroting back from the Mathworld site at Wolfram [wolfram.com].) The theory was later expanded to include the equivalent in N dimensions. In other words, if you take something that only has an "outside" and no holes, you could mash it into the shape of a sphere, or slide the rubber band right off it no matter what.

    The other side of the story is things like a torus, or for a tastier example, donut. It's not "simply connected closed 3-manifold" because if you put a rubber band around the "meat" of the donut through the hollow middle and never be able to get the rubber band off without breaking the donut or the rubber band. Yum.

    The thing that hasn't yet been proven is whether this is true for 3-dimensions as originally speculated. The Mathworld site at Wolfram [wolfram.com] says that it's been proven for N=1, 2, 4, 5, 6, and >=7, but not for 3. I don't know why ... I mean, can't you just define a point that is in the center of a given manifold then make a sphere that is the average distance from all points on the surface and define a new surface that is half-way between the two surfaces, and repeat forever to show that you really get a sphere ... for a torus, for instance, you'd get a point, but for a cube you'd get a finite sized sphere ... same for a Dixie cup, except it'd be really small.

  • Gallagher could reduce both an apple and a donut to a point...with just one swing!
  • by Anonymous Coward on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @01:23PM (#4514668)
    Here is the importance of this conjecture. It's really about a 3-dimensional subset of 4-dimensional space, but think of the usual 2- in 3- situation if it helps.

    Basically, if somebody gives you a twisted and knotted object, you would like to be able to say whether its really just a twisted and knotted sack (the sphere). It could in principle have any weird basic shape, you can't identify it when it's all twisted up. Showing the object is just a sphere, would require you to try to unknot it and smooth it out and say: look, I told you it was really just an ordinary sack.

    In pathological cases it can be really hard to figure out how to undo all the knotting and twisting possible, and the case of dimension 3- in 4- was the only one still unkown.

    So what you would like to do is not have to provide instructions for untangling the object, but rather just put it into a CAT scan, map its shape and perform some kind of calculation to verify it must be a sphere.

    This is the homotopic equivalence of the conjecture. You can calculate the homotopy groups of the sphere. You can also calculate the homotopy groups of the weird twisted object. If they are equivalent, you don't have to go to the effort of unknotting the shape. Before you didn't know for sure it must just be a sack, but now you do!

    Actually, that's assuming the proof holds up. Don't rush to judge these things so fast.
  • by hysterion ( 231229 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @01:44PM (#4514924) Homepage
    A glance at Nikitin's publication list [asu.edu] will show that he works in Control Theory, and never published in Topology or Geometry journals before... It's a bit as if a statistician announced a proof of Fermat, with a (by math standards) surprisingly short and elementary proof. Hats off if it's right, anyway I guess any mistake would be found pretty soon.
    • It's also interesting to note from his CV [asu.edu], that he's only an Associate Professor. ASU might want to make sure this guy's on a tenure track (if he wasn't before, I'm sure he is now.)

      Also from his CV: "1996-t/n Linux Consultant in Arizona"
  • by Anonymous Coward
    From Mathworld...

    "The conjecture that every simply connected closed 3-manifold is homeomorphic to the 3-sphere"

    A manifold is simply a surface, like the surface of a peice of paper. There are different types of manifolds ( topological, smooth,...), but for the near term that's not important.

    A 3-manifold is simply a manifold that has a surface of three dimensions.

    A simply connected manifold is a surface on which any loop you place one the surface can be continuously deformed to a point. What that means is that when you place a rubber band on the surface you can squench the rubber band down to a point without having to make it lose contact with the surface. For example you can do this for a soccer ball. But you can't for a dount. So a soccer ball is simply connected while a donut is not.

    To explain the term closed requires a bit of work. When one studies this kind of thing one covers manifolds with smaller sets of points that look just like the normal Euclidian balls, ie all points with a radius less than R say. These are open sets. [Experts only: Yeah I can define another topology but I am trying to explain things here! ] The complement of a set A which is a subset of a set B is the set of all points in B that are not in A. A closed set is a set that has a complement that is open.

    Two manifolds are homeomorphic if they can be [continuously] deformed in to one another.

    Finally a 3-sphere is simply the set of points in, a 4 dimensional space (x,y,z,t) that are equidistant from the origin, (0,0,0,0).

    So that should be it...now you know what this drek...

    "The conjecture that every simply connected closed 3-manifold is homeomorphic to the 3-sphere"

    ...means.

    That said I have not read the paper, don't have the time right now.

  • by call -151 ( 230520 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @02:05PM (#4515152) Homepage
    The preprint is posted on the arXiv.org [arxiv.org] web site, which is exactly that, a place to put preprints. Preprints that appear there have not been subject to peer review, so at this point, this is an annoucement of a result, which is very different than a number of mathematicians with the appropriate background agreeing that this is a proof.

    The abstract from the arXiv is:
    This paper proves that any simply connected closed three dimensional stellar manifold is stellar equivalent to the three dimensional sphere.


    and the intro of the paper says that "Since every 3-dimensional manifold can be triangulated and any two stellar equivalent manifolds are PL homeomorphic, our result does imply the famous Poincare conjecture."

    There is a nice front end to the math part of the arXiv from UC-Davis at this link [ucdavis.edu]
  • by sisukapalli1 ( 471175 ) on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @02:07PM (#4515172)
    A mathematician was once asked about how he could visualize a 3-D Sphere. His response was, "Simple! First visualize an n-D Sphere and then set n to 3".

    Read this a while ago somewhere. Couldn't resist posting it.

    S
  • by 241comp ( 535228 )
    Actually, all the article says is that they have finally realized that Douglas Adams is right.... the last line of the proof is:

    = 42
  • by Anonymous Coward on Wednesday October 23, 2002 @10:26PM (#4519140)
    The Poincare Conjecture and the issues surrounding it can be described using nothing but anagrams of the famous mathematicians name.

    IE NO CRAP

    Poincare was A NICE PRO by the standards of the time. I wish I had A COIN PER attempt to prove his theorem! Believe me, its NO PI RACE

    I'd ususally begin with a topological approach.
    Take a tennis ball and try to ARC ONE PI around the circumference, then PAIR ONCE.

    Getting too hard, need to go home to use super-computer.

    I OPEN CAR and drive home. ARE I PC ON? Click on PEAR ICON to load fruity maths app.

    Finally prove the theorem!

    I RAP ONCE and then REAP COIN.

    Thats all, I NO RECAP

    Sorry, someone had to do it!

    I. PORN ACE

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