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The Evolution of Language

Posted by samzenpus on Wed Oct 10, 2007 09:54 PM
from the everything-can-be-measured dept.
TaeKwonDood writes "We all know language has evolved but mathematicians are trying to take how it has changed in the past to predict what it will be like in the future." From the article: "Mathematical analysis of this linguistic evolution reveals that irregular verb conjugations behave in an extremely regular way -- one that can yield predictions and insights into the future stages of a verb's evolutionary trajectory," says Lieberman, a graduate student in applied mathematics in Harvard's School of Engineering and Applied Sciences and in the Harvard-MIT Division of Health Sciences and Technology, and an affiliate of Harvard's Program for Evolutionary Dynamics. "We measured something no one really thought could be measured, and got a striking and beautiful result.""
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  • by SpaceLifeForm (228190) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @09:56PM (#20935619)
    It's fuck that, suck this, screw that.

    Verbs, verbs, verbs, that's all anyone thinks about.
  • Hari Seldon... (Score:3, Interesting)

    by beav007 (746004) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:01PM (#20935653) Journal
    ...is that you?
  • by exploder (196936) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:02PM (#20935657) Homepage
    am glad I getted the chance to welcome our new, regularly-conjugated overlords.
  • by dbIII (701233) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:02PM (#20935661)
    I predict we will "loose" a lot of words and have them replaced by ones with similar spelling.
      • As much as that annoys me, I must say that they taught that as a valid way of doing things in my elementary school English classes. Then again, I'm one of those Americans that prefers the British style of punctuating quotes. In other words, I write something like:
        Johnny said, "Bill went to the store".
        whereas the American style is:
        Johnny said, "Bill went to the store."
        Obviously the former makes more sense because it nests properly: (sentence begins) (quote begins) (quote ends) (sentence ends).
        That said
          • Re: (Score:3, Insightful)

            Like what?

            System.out.println("Hello, world."); // ?

            Because in that case it makes perfect sense.

            (code begins) (open paren) (String begins) (sentence begins) (sentence ends) (String ends) (close paren) (code ends)

            I have no problem with a sentence like:

            Bill said, "Go to the store."

            Because in that case, it's logical. Well, almost. You could argue that it should read:

            Bill said, "Go to the store.".

            Because there's really two sentences there (the narrator's sentence as well as Bill's) but actually putting two peri
            • Re: (Score:3, Interesting)

              "(code begins) (open paren) (String begins) (sentence begins) (sentence ends) (String ends) (close paren) (code ends)"

              It may "make sense" but as is common in programming it does not fit the original simple requirement, in other words: where has the quote gone?
            • by TeknoHog (164938) on Thursday October 11 2007, @02:15AM (#20936921) Homepage Journal

              Bill said, "Go to the store.".

              Because there's really two sentences there (the narrator's sentence as well as Bill's) but actually putting two periods is redundant and I have no problem with the internal period in that case.

              I wouldn't say it's redundant, since as you said, there are two sentences. However, language often sacrifices logical consistency for fluency and clarity. Having lots of punctuation marks is typographically ugly, and distracts from fluent reading. Frankly, .". looks like an anime character.

      • Re: (Score:3, Insightful)

        Yes, I cry and cry when people forget the Harvard comma [wikipedia.org].

        Oh wait, no I don't, it's a useless extra comma that isn't necessary.
        • by Anonymous Coward on Wednesday October 10 2007, @11:48PM (#20936275)
          A panda walks into a café. He orders a sandwich, eats it, then draws a gun and proceeds to fire it at the other patrons.

          "Why?" asks the confused, surviving waiter amidst the carnage, as the panda makes towards the exit. The panda produces a badly punctuated wildlife manual and tosses it over his shoulder.

          "Well, I'm a panda," he says at the door. "Look it up."

          The waiter turns to the relevant entry in the manual and, sure enough, finds an explanation. "Panda. Large black-and-white bear-like mammal, native to China. Eats, shoots and leaves."

  • by Wizarth (785742) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:03PM (#20935667) Homepage
    For example, in Year 1 that useless letter "c" would be dropped to be replased either by "k" or "s", and likewise "x" would no longer be part of the alphabet. The only kase in which "c" would be retained would be the "ch" formation, which will be dealt with later. Year 2 might reform "w" spelling, so that "which" and "one" would take the same konsonant, wile Year 3 might well abolish "y" replasing it with "i" and iear 4 might fiks the "g/j" anomali wonse and for all.

    Generally, then, the improvement would kontinue iear bai iear with iear 5 doing awai with useless double konsonants, and iears 6-12 or so modifaiing vowlz and the rimeiniing voist and unvoist konsonants. Bai iear 15 or sou, it wud fainali bi posibl tu meik ius ov thi ridandant letez "c", "y" and "x" bai now jast a memori in the maindz ov ould doderez tu riplais "ch", "sh", and "th" rispektivili.

    Fainali, xen, aafte sam 20 iers ov orxogrefkl riform, wi wud hev alojikl, kohirnt speling in ius xrewawt xe Ingliy-spiking werld.
    • Actually, written English hasn't changed much since the Middle Ages. It's the pronunciation the one that's changed a lot, and that's why us non-native English speakers are sometimes baffled by the incoherence of the English spelling.
      • by langelgjm (860756) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:40PM (#20935923) Journal
        I'm not sure what you mean when you say "Middle Ages", but written English certainly did change quite a bit from the 8th century to the 16th century, and most people place the Middle Ages somewhere in there, if not starting before that. Here are some examples of the change:

        8th century - Beowulf, which is unreadable for modern English speakers.
        1066 - Norman conquest - Old French would have a massive influence on English. Introduction of lots of Latin roots into English.
        14th century - Chaucer, somewhat readable for modern English speakers with modernized spellings.
        16th century - Shakespeare, more or less readable for modern English speakers without much editing.


        Pronunciation of course also changed drastically, and this was reflected in orthography as well.
        • by Max Littlemore (1001285) on Thursday October 11 2007, @01:35AM (#20936789)

          16th century - Shakespeare, more or less readable for modern English speakers without much editing.

          The printing press was a major incentive to standardise spelling, but also let to one of the few problems translating/transcribing Shakespeare.

          Early fonts put a curl to the left on the bottom of the lower case "f" making it look a bit like a letter "s". Because s is much more common than "f", early printers would run out of esses before effs and would substitute an eff for an ess when neceffary.

          My dad has a reproduction of early prints of Shakspeare's plays and the Midsummer Nights Dream song "Where the bees suck, there suck I" is on one such page. This caused a bit of a stir backstage and had to be explained, apparently.

        • Re: (Score:3, Interesting)

          English is actually a good example why the mathematical approach is inappropriate. Your step between Beowulf and Chaucer is the crucial. In this period the linguistic situation in Britain became rather complex, while the vast majority of people continued to speak Anglo-Saxon (a West Germanic language of the Anglo-Frisian branch), the Norman nobility spoke Anglo-Norman, while the clergy used Latin. (Not to forget the different celtic tongues used by the people in Cornwall, Wales and Scotland.) All this produ

      • by Jimmy_B (129296) <slashdot@nosPAM.jimrandomh.org> on Wednesday October 10 2007, @11:54PM (#20936299) Homepage

        The trend for simplification is positively there, and the math is right -- the more complex and often-used it is, the bigger the pressure to simplify.
        No, that is the OPPOSITE of what happens (and what this paper says)! The more often something is used, the LESS likely it is to be simplified. These simplifications aren't the result of someone deciding to change the way they speak; rather, they're the result of successive generations learning their parents' language imperfectly. If an irregular verb is used all the time, you have to learn it or you'll sound like an idiot. Thus, all native English speakers know all of the conjugations of 'to be'. On the other hand, if you only use an irregular verb twice in your lifetime, you probably won't remember its conjugation, so you'll fall back on general rules. When everyone does this, the regular conjugation becomes the standard.
          • by iogan (943605) on Thursday October 11 2007, @03:46AM (#20937251) Homepage

            Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up the verb "to be." This is, by default, the oldest verb in any language (except perhaps Russian, which they tell me doesn't have it), and therefore the most irregular. Based on this, I have formulated the theory that "to be" is irregular in every language (that has it). In good scientific methodology, I am seeking out evidence to the contrary. Can anyone provide any?
            Russian does have the verb "to be", just not in the present tense. Its usage varies considerably from English, but then so do most languages. A lot of languages lack the copula-verb (as it is known) in the present tense, and do very well without it. When Borat says "She niiiice" you understand what he means perfectly well without the copula. :)

            The verb is indeed irregular in many languages, but nonetheless completely regular in others. One of the problems people have in deciding whether a feature of language is universal is the very small subset of languages they've been exposed to.

            Most of the languages you can name off hand are all part of the Indoeuropean family of languages, which has a very large number of speakers, but does not constitute a large number of languages. Thus a lot of features common to Indo-european languages are taken to be linguistic universals when really they are common only to a very small subset of human languages.
          • by Eivind (15695) <eivindorama@gmail.com> on Thursday October 11 2007, @04:58AM (#20937567) Homepage
            To be retains a lot of cruft that has fallen off less used verbs, such as distinct forms for different persons. I am, you are, he is, someone who doesn't know english won't even see any signs that these are the same word at all.

            Compare I bike, you bike, we all bike.... the distinction by person is useless the way it is in english, I wonder if it'll disappear completely outside of "to be". (for other words you have the "he bikes" thing)

            Thing is, this actually -did- make sence at some point (or atleast it served a purpose) in many languages that universally have different forms for different persons, you can remove the personal pronoun, since it's clear from the verb alone which person is meant.

            "I am a boy" is superfluous; "am boy" conveys the same meaning since "am" can only be used for "I". Works that way in finnish, for example:

            "puhun Suomi" (I speak finnish) "puhut Soumi" (you speak finnish), with enough grammar you can do away with many small words, and you can make the sequence of words more freely choosable. In english you make questions by reordering words. "you can have a cookie." "can I have a cookie?", with grammar that can also be done away with; In finnish you use -ko to symbolise question, so no need to reorder words (or add "do you" or similar antics)

            "puhutko Saksa?" ("Do you speak German?")

            In general though, it seems that the trend is that -less- grammar and -more small-word and word-sequence is used. English sure is losing grammar at a noticeable rate, same for Norwegian and German.
  • Werd Up (Score:5, Funny)

    by da3dAlus (20553) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:08PM (#20935713) Homepage Journal
    I for one welcome our cromulent new verbs!
  • by belmolis (702863) <billposerNO@SPAMalum.mit.edu> on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:18PM (#20935769) Homepage

    This isn't really news. We linguists have known this for a long time, as the article mentions, and we've known why: a child learning a language tends to regularize irregular forms. If he or she then hears the irregular form enough, the child reverts to the irregular form. This is why you'll hear children learning English go through a stage in which their knowledge of verb forms is skimpy but they have irregular forms like "brought", because they are memorizing individual forms, then through a stage in which they produce incorrect but regular forms, which they could not have learned from adults, like "bringed", because they have learned the rule, and through a third stage in which they learn the exceptions to the rule and the irregular forms like "brought" return. Irregular forms will only be learnable if they are sufficiently frequent. The only novelty of this research is the computational ability to carry out an accurate simulation.

    As for predicting the future of the language, that's silly. There is a lot more to language change than what happens to irregular verbs.

    • by samkass (174571) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:25PM (#20935823) Homepage Journal
      More interesting to me than irregular verbs is my son's usage of opposites. He wants me to "plug out" the vacuum cleaner, "buckle out" of his car seat, and-- my favorite-- "shut up" the computer (the opposite, of course, of "shut down"). Also the usages of "hot" or "warm"... the difference between something that is too hot such as food, and something that is too hot like a thick blanket in summer. (When I told him the blanket was too warm for summer, he asked me to cool down the blanket.) The other day he tried Tabasco sauce for the first time, and learned another usage of "hot".

      So are these usages converging the same way as verb irregularity?

      • by bobdotorg (598873) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:40PM (#20935921)
        More interesting to me than irregular verbs is my son's usage of opposites. He wants me to "plug out" the vacuum cleaner, "buckle out" of his car seat, and-- my favorite-- "shut up" the computer (the opposite, of course, of "shut down").

        One can also expand their English vocabulary by working with Indians. Took me a while to figure out WTF 'prepone' meant. As in (say with your best Apu imitation), "We need to prepone the meeting an hour or so." Prepone being the opposite of postpone.
    • Re: (Score:3, Interesting)

      Rudolf Flesch wrote some books back in the '50's implying that the most modern language we have is...CHINESE! Since Chinese is a spoken language rather than a written language (The writing is mostly pictorial representing whole concepts), it wasn't frozen in place with a bunch of affixes (suffixes, prefixes, etc.) or genders and all that other stuff that makes English hard to learn. Subject, verb, predicate .. That's all there is? You can't regularize verbs better than that! My last girlfriend was Cantonese
      • by Black Parrot (19622) on Thursday October 11 2007, @12:14AM (#20936413)

        Rudolf Flesch wrote some books back in the '50's implying that the most modern language we have is...CHINESE! Since Chinese is a spoken language rather than a written language (The writing is mostly pictorial representing whole concepts), it wasn't frozen in place with a bunch of affixes (suffixes, prefixes, etc.) or genders and all that other stuff that makes English hard to learn. Subject, verb, predicate .. That's all there is? You can't regularize verbs better than that!
        It's a misconception to think that languages evolve toward regularity. There are processes working in both directions. Believe it or not there's an underlying regularity to English's "irregular" verbs - it's just obscured by several thousand years of evolution. (Read up on ablaut, though the Wiktionary article doesn't do the topic justice.)

        Another example is that Modern English has a "weird" class of adjectives beginning in 'a' that don't be have like other adjectives: asleep awry alive, etc. -- there's a pile of them. I talked to a professor of linguistics, who had published a fairly well known textbook on syntax, and he seemed genuinely puzzled by them. But a basic familiarity with language change reveals that they are actually fossilized prepositional phrases. Cf. the line in A Clockwork Orange, "While you are on life" = "While you are alive". So what looks like an unmotivated class of irregular adjectives is actually just the evolutionary reflex of a very normal, regular syntactic structure.

        To add to the confusion, we're now getting a similar class of irregular adverbs with the derivation from the article 'a' rather than an old preposition, "alot", "awhile", etc., which while denegrated as ignorant spelling are actually a clue to the writer's understanding of the language. In a hundred years (or is that "ahundred"?), people without knowledge of English's history will think we have a class of irregular adjectives *and* adverbs, blissfully unaware that they are just evolved forms of very regular structures.

        Oh, and the properties of Chinese have nothing to do with writing or a lack thereof.
  • Psychohistory? (Score:4, Interesting)

    by Xgamer4 (970709) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:23PM (#20935801)
    Admittedly, while it doesn't directly relate to the mathematical analysis of language the ideas behind the study of them are similar. After all, before now mapping out the general patterns of human civilization through mathematical formulas sounded just as absurd as mapping out language patterns using math. And yet, here's an article describing how scientists may have discovered patterns to language. Any thoughts?

    Brief history of psychohistory for those who haven't read The Foundation Trilogy by Asimov:

    Psychohistory is the name of a fictional science, which combined history, sociology, and mathematical statistics, in Isaac Asimov's Foundation universe, to create a (nearly) exact science of the actions of very large groups of people, such as the Galactic Empire.

    From Wikipedia, obviously:
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychohistory/ [wikipedia.org]
  • by Repton (60818) on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:29PM (#20935855) Homepage

    Stanislaw Lem wrote a book -- I think it was _The Futurological Congress_ -- which included people who predicted future inventions by predicting possible words. The theory being: things won't be popular unless they have a good name, so by thinking of good names, and then considering what might have those names, you can predict future developments.

  • by xPsi (851544) * on Wednesday October 10 2007, @10:54PM (#20935993)
    Irregular verbs with lower frequencies of use -- such as "shrive" and "smite," with half-lives of 300 and 700 years, respectively -- are much more likely to succumb to regularization.

    I'm not sure what fancy-pants sources these guys are using, but 'shirve' and 'smite' are definitely not low frequency verbs in my crowd. I say keep the 'mote' in smote. They will rue the day when 'smitted' crosses my lips!

      • Re: (Score:3, Informative)

        Aside from their archive of "least used verbs throughout history" where else do you find these words?

        That is a grievous insult to the English language - shrive yourself or I will smite your ass!

        (ok, so I don't have occasion to use "shrive" too often, but "smite" is a very useful word)
  • by Fjan11 (649654) on Thursday October 11 2007, @05:47AM (#20937827) Homepage
    Darwin showed that adaptation is much larger in small isolated communities than in larger ones. English already changes a lot slower than, say, Dutch. If the internet turns the world into one big English speaking community than I wonder of their predictions based on past data hold.
  • To google (Score:5, Funny)

    by Ed Avis (5917) <ed@membled.com> on Thursday October 11 2007, @05:49AM (#20937837) Homepage
    What do they mean, 'new verbs entering English, such as "google," are universally regular.'? Everyone knows that it's

    I google
    I gaigle
    I have googlen
  • by Sierpinski (266120) on Thursday October 11 2007, @08:02AM (#20938655)
    Barbara: "Excuse me Stewardess, but I speak Jive."

    Stewardess: "Oh, good. Please tell him that I'll be right back with some medicine."

    Barbara: (to man) "Jus hang loose blood, she gonna catch you on the rebound with some medicide..."

    Man: "Whatchu talkin' bout momma, my momma didn't raise no dummies, I dug her rap!"

    Barbara: "Cut me some slack jack! (arguing in Jive) Jive-ass fool ain't got no brains... anyhow."

    (Forgive me if I missed a part, trying to do it from memory here....)
    • Sorry, but this is absolutely false. Korean has dialects that differ significantly from each other - there is no single unified language. Nor did the king ever standardize the language. Korean is no more artificial than any other human language. This appears to be a garbled version of the development of the Hangul alphabet by king Sejong and his advisors. This was a great development, but it was just a writing system, not a standardization of the language itself.

      Furthermore, it is not true that someone who speaks Chinese or Japanese can quickly pick up Korean. Chinese and Korean are not only unrelated but of radically different types. Chinese speakers find Korean quite difficult. Japanese speakers find Korean somewhat easier because the two languages are very similar in grammatical type, but even so most of the vocabulary is quite unfamiliar and the morphology, though similar in a general typological way, is quite different in detail.

      • by zooblethorpe (686757) on Thursday October 11 2007, @01:01AM (#20936635)

        As a fluent Japanese speaker and part-time studier of Korean, I can vouch for the grammatical similarities -- most intriguing. And also as a part-time studier of Chinese, I can vouch that Chinese and Korean are about as similar as English and Korean -- Korean has borrowed words from both languages, but structurally resembles neither. Okay, so Chinese influenced Korean (and Japanese too) in terms of how counters are used (words like "brace" in "a brace of ducks", or "murder" in "a murder of crows", or "loaf" in "three loaves of bread"), but otherwise Chinese and Korean have pitifully little to do with each other. For that matter, Chinese is closer to English structurally speaking than it is to Korean, so there. ;)

        Cheers,

    • Languages are 'derived', sure - they evolve as derivations of other languages and/or common usage that pushes some words into popularity while others fall into history.

      Linguistics 101 lesson: a language is not a bag of words. Any generalization about language that treats it as if it is some bag of words (e.g., in this case, that language change consists of new words entering the bag, while other words fall out of it) shows a profound ignorance of the fundamental ideas of linguistics. A language is a gram

    • Re:Bawstan Habah? (Score:5, Informative)

      by pyrrhonist (701154) on Thursday October 11 2007, @12:02AM (#20936343)

      All I'd like to know is how in the hell did Boston become Bawstan and Chowder become Chowda?

      As a Massachusetts resident, I have no idear what happens to the ahs.

      What really cracked me up is the day they decided to rename, "Great Woods Performing Arts Center", to the, "Tweeter Center for the Performing Arts". It's like they tried to purposely add more ahs!

      "Hey Boston Guy, where's the concert?"
      "It's at the Tweetah Centah for the Performin' Ahts!"

      Worcester is pronounced Wusta ... ?!?!?

      It depends on the speaker. Sometimes its more like Wista. Either way it's usually followed most times by, "Spag's", as in, "If we're going to bother to go to that wretched hive of scum and villainy, Wista, we might as well stop at Spag's".

      They haven't just evolved - they've completely morphed!

      To the point where sometimes people don't understand the normal pronunciation!

      True story:

      One day I went to a, "Boston Market", with my coworker for lunch. On this particular day, we were unfortunate enough to be waited upon by a guy with a Southy accent so thick you'd swear he was an extra from, "Good Will Hunting".

      In case you're lucky enough to be from another country and have never encountered one of these abominations of cuisine, some explanation is in order. Boston Market is a fast food restaurant that sells mainly rotisserie-cooked poultry dishes with your choice of side. At Boston Market you can get a chicken dish that consists of a leg and thigh, which is called a, "Quarter Dark". This is the item that I was prepared to order.

      I am not originally from Massashusetts, and so my pronunciation of these two words are almost identical to anyone in the civilized world (not entirely, or that would be, "civilised world"). I approached the register and ordered:

      Me: "I would like a quarter dark, please."
      Him: "Excuse me?"
      Me (loudly): "A quarter dark, please."
      Him: "What?"
      Me: "QWAHTAH DAHK!!!"
      Him: "Oh, a qwahtah dahk..."

      At least, "job", isn't pronounced like, "jaerb".

      Yet.

    • Wanna see morphing? Come to Australia. Even we have trouble keeping track of the changes.
      • Re: (Score:3, Informative)

        The Worcester in the midlands is also pronounced Wuster, the only people who ask directions to War-ces-tah are Americans and Londoners, usually on route to Edin-burg. I think in the general most places, in the English Midlands, at least spelt -cester are pronounced in a similar way e.g. Alcester - Allster, Bicester - Bister, Gloucester - Gloster, Leicester - Lester, Towcester - Toaster apart from the inevitable exceptions - Cirencester although apparently this is still sometimes called sissitter.
    • I'm going on another date with the most wonderful girl I could possibly imagine
      Is that an indication of the fine qualities of the girl, or the poor quality of your imagination?
    • Re: (Score:3, Insightful)

      You're talking about a language in which the utterance "ain't" has been around for centuries and yet it has been insisted for equally long that "ain't ain't a word!"